Question:
Hit or Reach on Error?
anonymous
2010-05-18 16:29:37 UTC
If the batter hits a popup that the fielder makes and error on and drops in foul territory, but the batter gets a hit later in the atbat, is it a hit or reached on error?
Eight answers:
anonymous
2010-05-18 17:49:42 UTC
The batter reaches first base on a hit.



The batter does not REACH on the error, BUT the fielder is credited with an error during the at-bat under Rule 10.12(a)(1). The error prolonged the time at bat for the batter. This ruling is reinforced by 10.12(a)(2), specifically referring to a misplay on a foul fly, whether the batter safely reaches first base or not.



ANY time a fielder misses a play that he should have made given ordinary effort, it is an error.



So, if I was keeping score, what I'd do is score the hit in the boxscore, and add a little asterisk in an empty corner of the box. On an empty part of the page, I'd note that the asterisk represented an error on the fielder, prolonging the batter's time at bat.



That batter becomes an unearned run, but if there are less than two out at the time, subsequent batters can become earned runs. Reconstruct the inning as if the batter was put out by the fielder catching the foul fly. (Rule 10.16)
?
2010-05-18 23:40:28 UTC
The way I understand your question, the popup was in foul territory when the fielder reached it. Otherwise if he touched it in fair territory, but it landed in foul territory, the batter could not have gotten a hit later in the at bat because the ball would have been in play. With that in mind, the fielder can be charged with an error in foul territory. And if the batter later had a base hit in the same at bat, it would be judged as a hit. So, in the same at bat, the fielder can be charged with an error and the batter be credited for a base hit. Hope my understanding of this is correct. Otherwise, I'm sure to be lambasted by Bob (Sarge).
?
2010-05-18 23:40:39 UTC
It would be a hit because the batter did not reach base on the error. The fielder was in foul territory when they dropped the ball. The batter would be credited with a hit, but any runs that score as a result, the run the hitter later scores (if they do), and any runs scored that inning by players that bat after the hitter in question scores are unearned because the error extended the at bat and the inning.
Chiz
2010-05-19 00:52:59 UTC
Both.



The fielder can be granted an error if it was deemed a routine play, but if a batter gets a legitimate hit on another pitch the batter is credited with a hit.



The batting stat is "reached on an error", which technically would not be the case in your scenario, even though the at-bat was extended because of an error; however, that could still lead to a pitcher getting an unearned run if he were to score or drive in a run.
BaSeBaLlKiD721
2010-05-18 23:33:06 UTC
It's still a hit.



If the fielder drops the ball in foul territory, it's not an error. It has to be in fair territory to be considered an error.
Utter Chaos
2010-05-18 23:32:19 UTC
It's an error for extending the life of the batter.



edit: I misread the question. It's an error on the fielder for dropping the foul ball. The batter gets whatever he does. In this case he gets a hit but if he scores, it's an unearned run.
The Wage
2010-05-18 23:32:17 UTC
If a fielder touched the ball before it lands in foul territory, the ball is fair, and it would be scored an error
Ural Hsal
2010-05-18 23:35:43 UTC
It's A Hit.


This content was originally posted on Y! Answers, a Q&A website that shut down in 2021.
Loading...